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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 04:58

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why are North Carolina Democrats against Mark Robinson? He is the modern Martin Luther King Jr. and the Democrats are being stupid for not voting him.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There Are (Allegedly) Two Words That Describe How Ryan Reynolds And Blake Lively Are Feeling After Bombshell Update In Baldoni Defamation Suit - Cinemablend

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

How did the Nazis figure out whether a person or community is 'Aryan' or not?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?